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Answer keys and reasoning

Questions are useful only when the answer makes sense and the explanation exposes the relevant assumption.

Transparency by design: This site uses formative rather than secure summative examinations. These answer keys are public. Replace or supplement them for any graded classroom use; conduct independent review before assigning academic grades.

Unit 1: Thinking with and describing data

  1. The population is not the sample

    A city interviews 400 of its 20,000 residents. The target is citywide transit opinion. What is the population?

    Answer: All 20,000 city residents

    The target population is all city residents. The sampled 400 are the selected subset.

  2. A parameter or a statistic?

    The mean study time calculated from 150 sampled students is which of these?

    Answer: A sample statistic

    A numerical summary computed from the sampled observations is a statistic. The corresponding population mean is a parameter.

  3. Digits can still be labels

    A student's postal ZIP code is best treated as which variable type?

    Answer: A nominal categorical identifier

    The digits label geographic areas; adding or averaging the codes has no meaningful measurement interpretation.

  4. Resistant center

    Which statistic stays at 50 if data 40, 45, 50, 55, 60 change to 40, 45, 50, 55, 600?

    Answer: Median

    The middle ordered value remains 50. Mean and spread change substantially.

  5. A sample-standard-deviation detail

    Why does the usual sample variance use n−1 in the denominator?

    Answer: To correct the estimated population variance under standard i.i.d. assumptions

    The familiar n−1 correction yields an unbiased estimate of population variance for independent identically distributed observations with finite variance.

  6. Bin choice versus data

    Changing a histogram from 5 to 20 equal-width bins while holding the raw observations fixed can change what?

    Answer: The histogram's apparent shape

    Binning changes how the same observations are displayed, not the underlying numeric summaries.

  7. Quartiles require a convention

    For the ordered values 2,4,6,8,10, what is the type-7 interpolated IQR?

    Answer: 4

    Q1=4 and Q3=8 under the stated type-7 convention, so IQR=4.

  8. Beware the truncated bar chart

    A bar chart displaying 98 and 102 uses a vertical axis beginning at 95. What is the primary concern?

    Answer: Truncated bar baselines can exaggerate visual differences

    Bars conventionally encode magnitude through length. A truncated baseline can exaggerate the relative appearance of a small absolute difference.

  9. Sampling versus assigning

    Randomly assigning volunteers to two treatments primarily helps with which goal?

    Answer: Causal comparison under the experimental design

    Random assignment supports treatment comparisons; who volunteered and how they were selected remains a generalization issue.

  10. A blank is not a zero

    A temperature record is missing on one day. What should a reproducible analysis generally avoid?

    Answer: Silently replacing it with zero

    Zero is a substantive measurement; missing indicates unknown information and must be handled and reported deliberately.

  11. Correlation is not enough

    Pearson's r is near zero. Which inference is justified?

    Answer: A strong curved relationship may still exist

    Pearson correlation summarizes linear association. Nonlinear dependencies may remain even when it is near zero.

  12. The research needs a source

    Which submission is most reproducible?

    Answer: A documented source, code, units, transformations and missingness

    Provenance, a data dictionary, transformation log and executable analysis allow readers to retrace the computation.

Unit 2: Sampling, probability, and distributions

  1. Simple random sampling

    What characterizes a simple random sample of n from N?

    Answer: Every possible size-n subset has equal selection probability

    Each size-n subset has equal selection probability; realized composition can still vary by chance.

  2. Stratified design

    What is a defining feature of stratified sampling?

    Answer: The population is partitioned into strata and sampled within them

    Samples are selected within defined population strata; weighting may be needed for overall estimates.

  3. Cluster dependence

    Why can 500 respondents from two schools offer less independent information than 500 separately selected students?

    Answer: Students in a school may be correlated

    Within-cluster correlation can reduce effective information and require design-aware standard errors.

  4. At least one success

    In three independent fair coin tosses, what is the probability of at least one head?

    Answer: 7/8

    Use the complement: 1 minus probability of all tails, 1−(1/2)^3 =7/8.

  5. Independence versus exclusion

    Can two positive-probability events be both independent and mutually exclusive?

    Answer: No, since the product of positive probabilities cannot equal their zero intersection

    Mutual exclusivity makes the intersection probability zero; independence makes it equal to a strictly positive product.

  6. Selecting participants

    How many four-person groups can be formed from eight distinct people without regard to order?

    Answer: 70

    There are 8 choose 4 equally sized subsets. The factorial formula 8! divided by (4!×4!) equals 70, because the order of members in the selected group does not matter.

  7. Law of total probability

    60% use transit. Early commute rates are 30% among users and 10% among nonusers. Overall early commute rate?

    Answer: 22%

    Weighted by the population partitions: .6(.3)+.4(.1)=.22.

  8. Base-rate reasoning

    A condition has prevalence 1%, test sensitivity 90%, specificity 95%. What is PPV approximately?

    Answer: 15.4%

    True-positive probability .009 divided by all-positive probability .009+.0495, about .154.

  9. The expected outcome

    A reward is 8 with probability .25 and 0 otherwise. What is its expected value?

    Answer: 2

    The probability-weighted mean is .25×8 + .75×0 = 2.

  10. Independent Bernoulli trials

    For X~Binomial(40,.25), what is E[X]?

    Answer: 10

    The expectation of a binomial success count is np. With 40 trials and success probability .25 per independent trial, that expectation is 40×.25=10 successes.

  11. A count of no events

    If X is Poisson with mean 2, P(X=0) is closest to which?

    Answer: .1353

    Poisson probability at zero is e^(−2), about .1353.

  12. What becomes normal?

    The central limit theorem typically concerns the limiting normality of which object under suitable conditions?

    Answer: A suitably standardized sample mean

    The CLT describes standardized sums/means; it does not make the original population normal.

  13. Probability under a density

    For X~Uniform(0,2), what is P(.5<X<1.5)?

    Answer: .5

    The interval has width 1 and density 1/2; area equals .5.

Unit 3: Statistical estimation and inference

  1. The 95% interval claim

    What does a properly calibrated 95% frequentist confidence procedure mean?

    Answer: About 95% of intervals constructed by repetition contain a fixed parameter

    Coverage is a repeated-sampling property of a random interval construction procedure under its assumptions.

  2. Unknown population variance

    A one-sample t test from 20 independent normal observations has how many degrees of freedom?

    Answer: 19

    The one-sample t reference has n−1=19 degrees of freedom.

  3. The zero-event problem

    Why is a Wald confidence interval [0,0] from zero successes in a small sample suspect?

    Answer: The event's true probability could still be positive

    A small observed count of zero does not remove uncertainty; Wilson or other better-calibrated procedures convey that.

  4. Two sources of variance

    Independent groups: sA²=2.5, nA=5; sB²=22, nB=8. Estimate the SE of mean A−mean B.

    Answer: 1.80

    The independent Welch standard error is sqrt(2.5/5+22/8)=sqrt(3.25)≈1.803.

  5. What is paired?

    What justifies applying a paired t procedure?

    Answer: The same persons measured before and after an event

    Paired differences require a meaningful matching or repeated-measurement design.

  6. Compare two outcome rates

    18 of 30 versus 12 of 30 experienced an outcome. What is the risk difference in percentage points?

    Answer: 20

    Group A's observed proportion is 18/30=.60 and B's is 12/30=.40. The risk difference is .60−.40=.20, meaning 20 percentage points, not 20% of the baseline.

  7. The p-value is conditional

    For a pre-specified test, p=.03 primarily means what?

    Answer: Assuming the null and other test conditions, results at least this extreme have probability 3%

    A p-value is a probability of data extremeness conditional on the null model, not a probability of the null itself.

  8. Fair die goodness of fit

    Six fair-die expected counts are ten each; observed counts are 15,5,10,10,10,10. Pearson's X²?

    Answer: 5

    Two cells contribute 25/10 each. Total chi-square statistic is 5.

  9. Table degrees of freedom

    For a 3-by-4 independent-count contingency table, the usual chi-square reference has what degrees of freedom?

    Answer: 6

    The conventional chi-square degrees of freedom in an r-by-c contingency table are (r−1)(c−1); with three rows and four columns that gives (3−1)(4−1)=6.

  10. Power is conditional on an effect

    Power 80% for a given alternative means?

    Answer: The test rejects the null in 80% of repetitions under that specified alternative

    Power is the probability of rejecting under the stated alternative and design.

  11. Many tests

    Twenty independent tests at alpha .05 with all nulls true have what chance of at least one false rejection?

    Answer: About 64%

    1−(.95)^20≈.642; the nominal single-test error does not apply to the selected familywide event.

  12. Small randomization experiment

    For balanced random assignment of four of eight participants to A, how many possible allocations?

    Answer: 70

    The exact count is binomial coefficient 8 choose 4=70.

  13. Why replacement is essential

    A standard nonparametric bootstrap for a sample mean draws how?

    Answer: From the empirical sample with replacement

    Sampling with replacement from the observed empirical distribution generates variation in the sample statistic.

Unit 4: Models, causal limits, and research practice

  1. The aggregate result reverses

    A success rate ranks treatment A higher within each severity group, but B higher overall. What is a possible explanation?

    Answer: Different severity-group weights in the two treatments

    Aggregated rates are weighted subgroup averages, and weights can differ across treatments.

  2. Interpret a fitted slope

    For y-hat = 12+3x, the fitted difference between x=5 and x=6 is?

    Answer: 3

    Holding the model fixed, an increase of one x unit changes fitted y by the slope, 3 units.

  3. Prediction mistake

    The observed response is 17 and fitted response is 12. The residual equals?

    Answer: 5

    A regression residual is the observed value minus the fitted prediction. For observed 17 and predicted 12, this is 17−12=5, so the observation lies above the fitted line.

  4. What R² is not

    For ordinary least squares with an intercept, R²=.9 tells us what?

    Answer: In sample, the model reduces squared error by 90% relative to the mean-only model under the usual definition

    R²=1−SSE/SST for this model; it is an in-sample descriptive fit ratio.

  5. A slope's estimated uncertainty

    A simple OLS model with intercept has n=5. What are the residual degrees of freedom for a slope t statistic?

    Answer: 3

    Estimating an intercept and a slope uses two degrees of freedom, leaving n−2=3 residual degrees.

  6. One-way ANOVA

    Three groups of three values have means 3,5,7 and grand mean 5. What is between-group SS?

    Answer: 24

    With three values per group, 3[(3−5)²+(5−5)²+(7−5)²]=24.

  7. Interpret the global F rejection

    A properly conducted one-way ANOVA rejects equality of three population means. What follows?

    Answer: At least one population mean differs under the tested model

    The global alternative says not all group means are equal; it doesn't identify every pair.

  8. Logistic regression scale

    In a logistic model, exp(beta1) represents what?

    Answer: An odds ratio per x unit under the model

    Exponentiating the log-odds slope yields a conditional odds ratio, not a probability ratio.

  9. Association versus causation

    A multivariable observational regression estimates an adjusted association. What else is required for a causal claim?

    Answer: Strong justified design and identification assumptions about confounding, selection and intervention

    Covariate adjustment alone does not prove exchangeability or control unmeasured confounding.

  10. Air-quality data audit

    Historical R airquality has 153 rows, with 37 missing Ozone readings. How many observed ozone values?

    Answer: 116

    153−37=116 ozone observations. A multivariable complete-case model can use fewer.

  11. Compare different regressions

    Why fit simple and multivariable airquality models on the same complete-case sample?

    Answer: To distinguish changed covariates from changed observation sets

    Otherwise coefficients can change because both included predictors and analytic records changed.

  12. Reproducibility

    Which report is most reproducible?

    Answer: Documented source, cleaning, code, software assumptions and complete results

    A reader must be able to retrace data provenance and rerun a documented analysis.

  13. Capstone claim

    Which conclusion is appropriate for a historical observational air-quality regression?

    Answer: Ozone readings in observed complete cases were associated with recorded temperature conditional on included covariates

    Observational regression describes conditional association; causal, missingness, and seasonal limitations remain.

Scoring and reuse

The browser tests give one point per correct multiple-choice answer and show the rationale for every response. An instructor should assess justification, numerical work, and interpretation separately; these questions alone do not validate mastery.

For a deeper summative task, use the capstone research report with its 100-point rubric and the laboratory teaching guide.